G’day Donna,
Thanks for getting back to me so quickly with such a thorough reply.
Donna Green - 18 July 2008 06:17 PM
Hi Timbo,
First of all, the churches of Corinth etc were not admonished by scripture, but the authority of the Apostles, predominately Peter.
Actually, it was predominantly Paul, but I don’t really mind which one of the Apostles it was at the level that it was done through words written down that were (as you rightly say) given the authority of scripture - I presume this means you agree that there is no discrpeancy between the authoritative spoken words of an apostle and the written records of those words in the books of the NT?
Donna Green - 18 July 2008 06:17 PM
Before I go on to answer your questions, first of all answer this question: who decided the books of the bible? History will tell you that there were many writings that were worthy of inclusion to the Bible but were not included.
What writings were these? Why weren’t they included? Who decdied that they shouldn’t be included? If it was the church of Rome that decided they should not be included when, as you have argued, they were worthy of it, doesn’t that dent the church of Rome’s claim of infallibility?
Donna Green - 18 July 2008 06:17 PM
Where in the Bible does it tell us that these words are inspired? (They are, I know)
See the promises made to the Apostles in John 14 and Acts 1-2 that they would be empowered by the Holy Spirit (the Spirit of truth , as Jesus puts it in John 14) to be Jesus witnesses - I take it that you agree that the Holy Spirit speaking through the apostles was a faithful witness to Christ?.
Donna Green - 18 July 2008 06:17 PM
And finally, how on earth did Christians cope for many centuries without a hard copy of sacred scripture. The printing press wasn’t invented for over a thousand years.
Who says they didn’t have a hard copy? There were many handwritten copies made of the letters, bypassing the need for a printing press to be invented. This is one of the reasons why we can have such confidence in the scritptures, as there are so many early copies (hundreds in some cases) which date back so close to the time of authorship and which have only minor variations between each other.
Donna Green - 18 July 2008 06:17 PM
In response to your question re Christ founding a visible Church.
I didn’t ask any question about Jesus founding a visible church, rather about (what I thought you were claiming was) an infallible church. Is this what you mean by visible? And I have to ask again, for clarity’s sake, as I don’t understand the terms you use, by preserve do you mean make infallible?
Donna Green - 18 July 2008 06:17 PM
Jesus told Peter that your are the Rock and upon this Rock I will build My Church and the gates of hell will not prevail against it. Whatever you bind on earth will be bound in Heaven and whatever you loose on earth will be loose in Heaven. Why would Jesus change Peter’s name. This word that Jesus used was only ever used in the Old Testament to name God. Jews would have seen a change of name as significant. Remember Jacob was named Israel (Gen 32:28), Eliacim to Joakim (2Kings 23:34).
Getting back to Peter as Rock. The word Cephas (Peter’s name) is a transliteration of the Aramaic Kepha into Greek. Kepha means rock. The Greek word for rock, petra, and feminine in gender and would not be used in this instance. Jesus spoke Aramaic not Greek.
I’m sorry, but I don’t see how this shows that the church of Rome - even allowing for it being established by Peter - would be infallible. Why wouldn’t any other church established by Peter be infallible on the basis you have presented above?
Donna Green - 18 July 2008 06:17 PM
As for the infallibility of the Church and the Pope. A short explanation. Jn 16:13 - explains the protection of the Holy Spirit; Luke 22:32 - “I have prayed that they faith may not fail”; 1Tim 3:15. If individual Catholics or Christians fail that does not take anything from the promise of Christ that the gates will not prevail against the Church. Even if one member was left, it would still prove Jesus meant what he said.
Ummm ... can you explain to me how any of this relates to the infalliblity of the leader of the church of Rome, or the infallibility of the church he leads? John 16:13 is addressed to the Apostles, Luke 22:32 specifically to Peter, and 1 Tim 3:15 to Timothy as he leads the church at Ephesus. I am perplexed!
Thanks for the discussion & have a good weekend.
Timbo