Thanks Chris for your response
[quote author="Chris"]I am worried about making marital relationship the standard by which the sinfulness or otherwise of sexual relationship is measured - especially given the fact that for millenia women had very little choice in whom they married. Certainly in 1st century Palestine this was the case, and so all the statements in the NT need to be interpreted in this light.
I suppose I would have to argue that if “God created sex for the marital relationship”, that is a very limited understanding of sexuality, particularly in a first century context. It would basically mean that a woman sold to her husband at the age of twelve was not sinning, but two people in a loving committed (unmarried) relationship would be. I think the nature of sexuality is much more subtle than that.
Yes, our free-choice when it comes to marriage is a relatively modern development and even here in Australia there are still numerous cultures where marriages are arranged (and I have said on this board before that in some ways I wish marriages were still arranged for us!). However, I don’t see how whether a marriage is arranged or not makes a skerrick of difference to our understanding of what God instituted sex for.
The Bible does not say that God created sex so that we could express self-sacrificial love. It says he created sex so that we could express self-sacrifical love (amongst other things) within a particularly context and that the context is when a man and a woman come together, and committ themselves to each other for as long as they live in the sight of God.
Now whether that takes place in an arranged marriage where a woman’s husband is chosen for her (and often a man’s wife chosen for him) or whether it takes place when a man and a woman decide of their own free choice to marry- I don’t see a difference.
[quote author="Chris"]Certainly in 1st century Palestine this was the case, and so all the statements in the NT need to be interpreted in this light.
You only have to look at Paul’s instructions for a husband to love his wife as his own body and for a wife to respect her husband (Eph 5). Paul was well aware that the vast majority (if not all) of the marriages he spoke of were arranged and yet he urges and encourages them to act in this way (despite the fact that they may not have married by choice or be ‘in lurve’ with each other). Why do we look at arranged marriages from our 21st Century vantage point and cry foul?? The Bible never says that marriage is about ‘falling in love’ or ‘chemistry’ but that it is about committing yourself, under God, to an individual who you promise to love no matter the circumstances of your marriage.
So yes, a woman whose marriage was arranged (I think it is unfairly putting a modern prejudice on it to say she was ‘sold to her husband’) would not be sinning whislt two people in a ‘loving committed relationship’ yet unmarried would be (although I am very doubtful that this kind of relationship was at all prevalent. I think it too is a very modern development).
Along with our freedom to choose who to marry has come this very modern day concept that sex outside of marriage is fine as long as it is not one night stands, shallow or superficial and there is some intention of committment (for an unspecific period of time) to the other person. But I can’t see where in the Bible that view is ever upheld. If you want to intepret the NT in light of the fact that they had arranged marriages then it seems to me that the only conclusion is that they were instructed it was God’s will that they honour the committment they made in marriage and love, honour and respect each other all the more.